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99135 is a qualifying-circumstances modifier that describes:


A) Anesthesia complicated by emergency conditions
B) Anesthesia for patient of extreme age: younger than 1 year old and older than 70
C) Anesthesia complicated by utilization of controlled hypotension
D) Anesthesia complicated by utilization of total body hypothermia

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Qualifying-circumstance modifier 99100 is defined as:


A) Anesthesia complicated by utilization of controlled hypotension
B) Anesthesia complicated by emergency conditions
C) Anesthesia for patient of extreme age: younger than 1 year old and older than 70
D) Anesthesia complicated by utilization of total body hypothermia

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Qualifying-circumstance modifier 99116 describes anesthesia that is complicated by what condition being induced in the patient?


A) Hypotension
B) Hypertension
C) Hypothermia
D) Hyperthermia

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Qualifying-circumstance modifiers can be used to describe all of the following scenarios except:


A) emergency situations in which a history of previous anesthesia response is not available
B) conditions under which a surgical procedure is performed
C) extreme patient age
D) amount of surgeries performed at one time

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A patient with severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life is denoted by using the physical-status modifier:


A) P5
B) P6
C) P4
D) P3

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What is the appropriate abbreviation for base units?


A) Bun
B) BaU
C) B
D) BU

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A seventy-five-year-old patient is identified in the pre-op room and brought to the surgical suite for bypass coronary artery surgery. The anesthesia provided for this service would be described by the appropriate anesthesia CPT code and qualifying-circumstance modifier:


A) 99140
B) 99100
C) 99135
D) 99116

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Modifiers which identify the provider or level of supervision provided by an anesthesiologist are located in:


A) Tabular List
B) Appendix A
C) HCPCS Level II
D) CPT (HCPCS Level I)

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Medical direction, as it applies to anesthesia services, is:


A) Physician involvement with and direction of anesthesia carried out by a qualified provider
B) Preparing a surgical site for tracheotomy carried out by a qualified provider
C) Formal treatment planning between the surgical provider and anesthesia provider
D) CRNA formulation of an anesthesia treatment plan

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Preoperative and postoperative visits:


A) May be coded separately from a routine anesthesia service
B) Do not have separate CPT codes in the manual
C) Are typically not coded separately from a routine anesthesia service
D) Are only coded when procedures are performed for postoperative pain management

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Physical-status modifier P3 represents:


A) A declared-brain-dead patient whose organs are being removed for donor purposes
B) A normal, healthy patient
C) A patient with severe systemic disease
D) A patient with mild systemic disease

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A patient with severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life is denoted by using the physical-status modifier:


A) P4
B) P5
C) P6
D) P3

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(T) is the abbreviation for:


A) Total modifying factors
B) Total time of procedure
C) Total base units
D) Total time of anesthesia care

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MAC-specific modifier QS indicates:


A) MAC for a patient who has a history of a severe cardiopulmonary condition
B) MAC airway management
C) MAC service with use of hypothermic induction
D) MAC service

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An otherwise-healthy five-year-old patient is identified in the pre-op area and brought back for surgical tonsillectomy. What physical-status modifier(s) and/or qualifying-circumstance modifier(s) would be used?


A) P1 and 99100
B) P1, P6, and 99100
C) P1
D) P6 and 99100

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Qualifying-circumstance modifier 99116 adds how many additional units to an anesthesia code when appended?


A) 5
B) 3
C) 4
D) 6

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In the definition of qualifying-circumstance modifier 99100, "extreme age" is specified as:


A) Less than 1 year old and older than 75
B) Less than 1 year old and older than 70
C) Less than 6 months old and older than 70
D) Less than 6 months old and older than 75

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Reporting time as well as base units for the primary anesthesia service allows for capture of what?


A) Any modifying circumstances that would signify an increase in reimbursement
B) Additional work provided by the surgeon
C) Physical status and qualifying circumstances
D) Additional work provided by the anesthesiologist

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The component of the reimbursement formula that begins when the patient is being prepared for anesthesia and ends when the patient is no longer being attended by the anesthesiologist is:


A) Relative Value Unit
B) Time
C) CPT code
D) Base unit

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Which of the following physical-status modifiers do not add any additional units to an anesthesia code to which it/they are appended?


A) P1 and P5
B) P1, P2, and P6
C) P2-P5
D) P1, P2, and P5

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